Why such a postulate as the Ampère force, which is one of the constants of physics, I singled out in a separate article. To do this, you need to repeat or double-check, for example, the corresponding chapter from a physics textbook: CHAPTER TWO. MAGNETS. A MAGNETIC FIELD. MAGNETIC ACTION OF THE CURRENT, For further clarification, we study / repeat: THE MAGNETIC FIELD AFFECTS A CONDUCTOR WITH CURRENT.

The constant that is used in the equation according to the Mitkevich rule (link to the source of information on the slide ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING IN "CHILDREN" DRAWINGS, or the site FREE ENERGY (https://001-lab.at.ua/index/osnovy_ehlektrotekhniki/0) -13-0 -13).

Formulas for active power:

— in DC circuits;P = U I

— in single-phase AC circuits;P = U I cosθ

Let's check the fulfillment of Mitkevich's rule in practice. Guy **mich**, conducted an experiment for me with a simple generator:

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=VAM9TLfUDkQ

**Mitch**indicated the rotation speed of the converter is 2000 rpm. We have enough initial data to calculate.

,Т = P * 9.55 / rpm

**) was 0.65 (65%) both in terms of electrical power and in terms of electromagnetic moments. Which is in line with current practice in electrical engineering.**

*efficiency = Pg / Pm = Tg / Tm**=*

**T = F * r = N * (B * l * I) * r***.*

**15 turns * (0.31 T * 0.66 m * 1.3A) * 0.055 m = 0.219 N*m***against*

**0.219 N * m***.*

**0.065 N * m***.*

**5 mm**

**Bm = 0.1307 T**[https://www.kjmagnetics.com/calculator.asp?calcType=block]

We are trying to calculate the electromagnetic moment:

** T = F * r = N * (B * l * I) * r = 15 turns * (0.1307 T * 0.66 m * 1.3 A) * 0.055 m = 0.093 N * m**.

The indicator of the electromagnetic magnetic moment is simply wonderful, since the efficiency of the converter will be equal to * COP = 0.093 / 0.099 = 0.94 (94%)*. Which is great, but unlikely.

SECOND METHOD: Calculate from the obtained data the electric power. Let's find the value of the magnetic induction from the EMF formula: * E = Bm*l*v*. We need to find the rate of change of the magnetic flux, we find it by the formula:

*v = π*r*rpm/30 = 3.14 * 0.055 * 2000 / 30 = 11.51 m/s*

We also need to find the value of the EMF. We find the dimension of the voltage drop:

** U' = I*R = 1.3A * 4Ohm = 5.2V**,

add it to the voltage at the generator terminals and get the EMF (**E**) value in the generator phase:

* E = Ug + (I*R) = 10.4 +5.2 = 15.6 V*.

Next, we transform the EMF formula ** E = Bm * l * v**, to calculate the Magnetic induction:

** Bm = E / v / l = 15.6V / 11.51 m / s / 9.9 m = 0.1369 T**.

We are trying to calculate the electromagnetic torque with the result obtained:

* T = F*r = N*(B*l*I) * r = 15 turns * (0.1369 T * 0.66 m * 1.3A) * 0.055 m = 0.097 N *m*.

The indicator is simply very remarkable ** COP = 0.097 / 0.099 = 0.98 (98%)**. Which is also VERY great, but VERY unlikely. Any rotation system and a motor with it has an idle moment, in this case it is almost zero, which is in fact impossible. I am sure that if Mitch. made measurements of power consumption by the motor in idle mode of the generator at a rotation speed of

*, we would have the exact measurement of the error.*

**2000 rpm**Let's find it from the initial data * T0 = 0.099 - 0.065 = 0.034 N*m*. Next, we find the idle power:

**P0 = M0 * rpm / 9.55 = 0.034 * 2000 / 9.55 = 7.1 W**

In this formula: * T = F * r = N * (B * l * I) * r*, only the value of magnetic induction B can be changed. Science shows us the existence of an average value of magnetic induction

*B**. The average value of the magnetic induction can be determined from the parameter of the mechanical power of the generator, which by default should be equal to the electrical power.*

**average***.*

**Pe = Rm = 13.5 W**We know all the indicators. Find the resulting Ampère force from the formula ** T = F*r**:

*F = T/r = 0.065/0.055 = 1.18 Newtons*

Further according to the formula of the modulus of magnetic induction. find the value of the resulting magnetic induction: *В = F / (l*I) = F /(N*l)*I *

*B = F /(N*l)*I = 1,18 / (15*0,66) * 1,3 = 0.091**T*

If we take this value of magnetic induction and substitute it into the formula for calculating the EMF:

*

**,**

*= 0.091 * (15*0.66) * 11.51 = 10.4 V*the result obtained coincides with the voltage measurement at the terminals of the source data generator received upon measurement.

Certain orthodoxies and keepers of physical constants will object, since the magnetic field and its magnetic induction of the magnetic pole of the generator rotor, in the conductor zone, is unchanged. This is unconditional, but what then changes to obtain the corresponding result of the resulting electromagnetic force?

We accept and write down Mitkevich's Rule: The electrical power developed by the generator is equal to the converted mechanical power.

Electrical Power =* Pe = EI = Blv*I = BIL*v = Fv = Pk* = Mechanical Power

As suggested by this vision, educational resources:

The total electric power developed by the DC generator is equal to the product of the electromotive force of the generator and the total current of its armature winding: P=EIa.

If the EMF of the generator is maintained constant, then its total electrical power will be proportional to the current.

According to the generator EMF formula: E=(p/a)zФ(rpm/60)

Other things being equal, the total electric power of the generator increases with an increase in the number of revolutions of its armature and an increase in the number of its poles.

Useful power P1, given by the generator to the external circuit, is equal to the product of the electrical voltage at the generator terminals by the amount of current sent by the generator to the external circuit: P1 = UI, where P1 is the useful power in Watts; U is the voltage in Volts; I is the current in amperes.

Did you notice anything special? Well then, let's write the Mitkevich equation in numbers of the simplest generator we have considered:

* 20.28 W = 15.6 V * 1.3 A = (0.1369 T * 11.51 m / s * 9.9 m) * 1.3A* =

*=(0.1369 T * (1.3 A * 15 turns ) * 0.66 m) * 11.51 m/s = 1.76 Newtons * 11.51 m/s = 20.36 W*

*Re = 20.28 W = 20.36 W = Pk*

For schoolchildren and students (who do not have to deal with the calculation of electrical machines), everything is charmingly confirmed, for an assessment for the material covered. Only the power of our generator does not have an indicator of ** 20.3 W**, its value is

*. It will be objected to me that this formula refers to the total power. I object to this assertion. The total EMF will be determined at the generator terminals only when the generator is operating in an open circuit that does not include a load.*

**13.5 W**The expression

*is essentially absurd. The current in the circuit: generator - load, occurs only at the moment of connection to the terminals of the generator, the load with its own resistance, and its voltage drop in the circuit from the initial EMF occurs synchronously:*

**Pe = EI***. The electromotive force of a phase cannot be multiplied by the effective current. Moreover, there are inconsistencies, namely, the magnetic induction from the magnetic flux of the external pole, in the zone of the active wire of the phase forms the initial electromotive force, and from the point of view of common sense, its indicator is clearly measured and calculated (in our case, the resulting magnetic induction of the external field was*

**U = E - (I * R)***). But the resulting magnetic induction in the active Ampere Force, which forms the mechanical power of the generator, again calculated according to the well-known formula, was*

**B = 0 ,1369 T***. In fact, if you look soberly and logically, the level of magnetic induction has decreased by the level of voltage drop. I*

**B = 0.091 T****f the level of magnetic induction of the external field has not changed, then what has changed?**

Previously, a number of experiments were carried out with the calculation of the traction electromagnetic force of a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field.

I summarized the data and calculations in the table:

In this experiment, the actual result is also different from the calculated constant. And most importantly, this is a direct dependence on the magnitude of the voltage drop (actually a vortex electric field) in the conductor section in a magnetic field. It turns out that the final value, in the module of the electromagnetic force, remains with the electromagnetic force of the conductor, and not with the external field. If we consider the dimensionality of the values of the magnetic induction of a current-carrying conductor, the resulting electromagnetic force will directly depend on the presence of an electric vortex field around the conductor, it is the value of the magnetic induction around the conductor that will be effective, even if the external field far exceeds the value of the magnetic induction of the conductor available for interaction with an external magnetic field.

Thus, a constant from a physics textbook, so beloved by orthodox physics and linear engineers:

** B (1 T) = F (1 N) / [L (1 m) * I (1 A)]**,

applicable to a conductor where the voltage drop across a given conductor is absolute or the voltage drop is the voltage (EMF) of the source.

Dear guests, participants, opponents!

If you're itching to convince me that I'm wrong or that I've made a discovery, don't bother. I will accept the proof of the fallacy, only with an example of an engineering sane calculation that can be verified. I am also not going to move this topic into scientific circles, just as I am not going to prove my case to orthodox physicists and engineers. It is enough for me that I figured it out myself and shared it with you in this publication. To calculate the level of magnetic induction for calculating the Ampere Force, you need to derive the coefficient for the resulting magnetic induction from the magnetic induction of the external field from the condition of the level of voltage drop on the active section of the wire ** k'=U/E**, where: U is the effective voltage in the circuit, in volts, E is the initial source voltage, or generator no-load EMF, in volts). To find out the magnetic induction, for the resulting Ampère Force, you need to multiply the magnetic induction of the external magnetic field in the conductor zone by this coefficient

*'. You can also calculate the resulting magnetic induction of the external field in the conductor zone from the Ampere Force obtained experimentally, according to the dynamometer readings, knowing the current strength, the length of the active wire, and two voltage values: initial and effective. This is explained simply, the vortex magnetic field of the conductor, for interaction with an external field, works only at the border of the vortex electric field. The closer this boundary (r) to the surface of the conductor, the more effective the magnetic interaction of the wire with the current and the external magnetic field. It is also possible to calculate this boundary using the formula:*

**B = Bm * k*** r = (1+k')*μ₀*(I/(2π*Bm))*,

further substituting this value into the formula for calculating the magnetic induction for a straight conductor ** B=μ₀*I /2πr**, we get the value of the resulting magnetic induction for the Ampere Force, as well as for the effective voltage of the generator winding under load. Whether it is connected or not is already obvious. If you want to call this coefficient the Rakarsky coefficient, I will not object. All successful research and achievement of the goals and objectives, if they are good.

Best regards, Serge Rakarsky

Link to the original publication: Результирующая Сила Ампера - Free Energy Systems - Каталог статей - FES (narod.ru)

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